@SteveRoth a more egalitarian distribution is always more inflationary cet par than a top-heavy one. so, sure! but what causes the decline in top-1% wealth share (wealth velocity then rises pretty mechanically via MPC effects). why were the 1970s an unusually egalitarian decade? (of course then the media had to misery-index it, make actually a pretty good decade considering the archetype of bad.)